Abstract
Standard results about portfolio optimization suggest that the allocation to real estate in a mixed-asset portfolio should be around 15–20%. However, the institutional investors share in real estate is significantly smaller, around 7–9%. Many researches have addressed this point even if as of today no consensus has emerged. In this paper, we built-up an allocation model that can explain the empirical observed weights. For this purpose, we account for the term structure of all standard financial assets and also of real estate asset class (expected returns, volatilities and correlations depending on the time to maturity). We propose a dynamic portfolio optimization model that allows analyzing portfolio weights with respect to the whole term structure modelling, due to its tractability and its good fit when being adequately calibrated. In this framework, we provide explicit and operational solutions to the dynamic mixed-asset portfolio allocation (cash, real estate, stock and bond). The results show that accounting for investment horizon and mean-reverting dynamics allows to better examine how portfolio allocations depend on both risk aversion and investment horizon.
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Notes
Andonov et al. (2013) examine about 880 pension funds in the United States, Canada, Europe, and Australia/New Zealand from 1990 to 2009. In 2009, the shares of these pension funds are respectively equal to 47.1% on stocks, to 36.9% on bonds, and to 2.5% on cash while the remaining amount (i.e. 13.5%) has been invested in alternative assets, especially 5.1% on Real Estate.
Note that most studies relying on traditional mean/variance optimization assume i.i.d. returns.
Heaney and Sriananthakumar (2012) highlight in particular how the correlation between real estate returns and capital markets is time-varying.
Indeed, real estate markets present many specificities such as transaction costs, lack of liquidity (as illustrated—among other things—by the marketing period risk and the rental vacancy rate). It is also well documented that (the observed or reported) direct (private) real estate returns exhibit autocorrelation (see, among others, Geltner (1991) who deal with smoothing issue and Barkham and Geltner (1995) who point out that returns are not i.i.d.).
For example, as noted by Rehring (2012): “high transaction costs imply expected real estate returns, per period, that are much higher in the long run than in the short run.” Regarding the volatility, Rehring (2012) examines the UK real estate market and shows that the conditional standard deviation of commercial real estate returns depends on the investment maturity as for usual stocks. In other words, Rehring (2012) internalizes the transaction costs both in the return and volatility modelling.
All the previous authors find decreasing volatilities function for real estate and thus real estate is less risky for longer-horizon investors. Similar results are provided by Baroni et al. (2008) for the French residential market in Paris.
Campbell and Viceira (2005) examine the US market and show that, contrary to cash, stock returns are mean reverting. This means that the long-term volatility of stock returns (per period) is lower than the short-term return volatility. They find also that bond returns are slighty mean reverting.
As discussed by Bajeux-Besnainou et al. (2001), the introduction of constant duration bonds allows to get a bond/stock ratio which increases with time when assuming that returns follow geometric Brownian motions.
Wachter (2002) considers only mean-reverting property of the drift of one single asset. This paper introduces a specific Ornstein–Uhlenbeck process to model the instantaneous Sharpe ratio (but with a constant volatility) which is driven by the same Brownian motion as for the dynamics of the risky asset. This allows the financial market completeness. In a discrete-time setting, Campbell and Viceira (2005) introduce a vector autoregressive (VAR) model, which justifies the mean-reverting property of the drift. However, such approach does not lead to exact explicit solutions and moreover volatility is also assumed to be constant. They deal also with only one single asset. When dealing with multi asset allocation, time-varying correlation must be also taken into account. Additionally, looking at financial data, return volatilities are also mean reverting. Finally, in the numerical section, note that all excess expected returns per year and standard deviations per year look like negative exponential functions of time to maturity. Thus, they correspond to the expectations of stochastic mean-reverting processes such as the Ornstein–Uhlenbeck process.
Recall that the Ornstein–Uhlenbeck process is given by:
$$\begin{aligned} r_{t}=r_{0}e^{-k_{r}t}+\overline{r}\left( 1-e^{-k_{r}t}\right) +a_{r}e^{-k_{r}t} \int _{0}^{t}e^{k_{r}s}dW_{s}^{r}.\, \end{aligned}$$It has been introduced by Vasicek (1977) to model stochastic interest rates (see e.g. Brigo and Mercurio 2006).
Note also that we can determine the optimal weighting vector X from the vector of risk premia \(\theta \) itself since we have:
$$\begin{aligned} X=\left( {\;}^{t} \Sigma \right) ^{-1}\Lambda =\left( {\;} ^{t}\Sigma \right) ^{-1}\Gamma ^{-1}\theta . \end{aligned}$$This is also the case for Pagliari (2017) at least for private real estate.
For example, if we assume that the real estate asset dynamics is driven by more than one Brownian motion if we consider multi factor modelling.
Obviously, other models can be introduced and examined. For example, we can take account of stochastic market prices of risk, of labor income as in El Karoui (1996), for no traded asset such as in Lioui and Poncet (2001). Nevertheless, note that, even in complete markets, Monte Carlo simulations are often necessary to compute optimal portfolios as for example in Detemple et al. (2003) or in Cvitanic et al. (2003).
Detailed proofs are available on request.
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Appendices
Appendix A: Properties of the numeraire portfolio
Recall that the Radon–Nikodym density of the risk-neutral probability is given by:
where
and
The numeraire portfolio H is equal to:
Consequently, we get:
Since \(\left( W^{r},W^{P},W^{S}\right) \) is a Gaussian process, we can deduce that \(\ln H_{t}\) is Gaussian itself. We have to determine its expectation and variance. More precisely, we determine the conditional expectations for powers z of \(\mathbb {E}_{t}\left[ \frac{ H_{T}^{z}}{H_{t}^{z}}\right] \). The ratio \(\frac{H_{T}^{z}}{H_{t}^{z}}\) satisfies:
with
The process \(N_{z}(t,T)\) is Gaussian distributed. Thus, to determine \( \mathbb {E}_{t}\left[ \frac{H_{T}^{z}}{H_{t}^{z}}\right] \), we have just to compute \(\mathbb {E}_{t}\left[ N_{z}(t,T)\right] \) and \({ Var}_{t}\left[ N_{z}(t,T)\right] \), since we have:
-
1.
Determination of \(\mathbb {E}_{t}\left[ N_{z}(t,T)\right] \). We have:
$$\begin{aligned} \mathbb {E}_{t}\left[ N_{z}(t,T)\right] =z\left( \int _{t}^{T}\mathbb {E}_{t} \left[ r_{u}\right] \,du+\int _{t}^{T}A(s)ds\right) . \end{aligned}$$We deduce: for \(u>t\),
$$\begin{aligned} \mathbb {E}_{t}\left[ r_{u}\right] =\overline{r}+(r_{t}-\overline{r} )e^{-(u-t)k_{r}}. \end{aligned}$$Finally, we get:
$$\begin{aligned} \mathbb {E}_{t}\left[ N_{z}(t,T)\right] =z(T-t)\left( \overline{r}+ \left( r_{t}- \overline{r}\right) \frac{\beta _{r}(T-t)}{T-t}+\frac{1}{T-t}\int _{t}^{T}A(s)ds \right) , \end{aligned}$$which is equivalent to:
$$\begin{aligned} \mathbb {E}_{t}\left[ N_{z}(t,T)\right] =z\Phi _{(t,T)}, \end{aligned}$$with:
$$\begin{aligned} \Phi _{(t,T)}=(T-t)\left[ \overline{r}+(r_{t}-\overline{r})\frac{\beta _{r}(T-t)}{(T-t)}+\frac{1}{T-t}\int _{t}^{T}A(s)ds\right] . \end{aligned}$$ -
2.
Determination of \({ Var}_{t}\left[ N_{z}(t,T)\right] \). Step 1: computation of \({ Var}_{t}\left[ \int _{t}^{T}r_{s}ds\right] \) - To calculate \( { Var}_{t}\left[ \int _{t}^{T}r_{s}ds\right] ,\) we use the Fubini’s property for stochastic integrals. We have:
$$\begin{aligned} r_{t}= & {} \overline{r}+(r_{s}-\overline{r})e^{-(t-s)k_{r}}+a_{r}e^{-(t-s)k_{r}} \int _{s}^{t}e^{(u-s)k_{r}}dW_{u}^{r}.\\ \int _{t}^{T}r_{u}du= & {} \overline{r}(T-t)+(r_{t}-\overline{r})\beta _{r}(T-t)\\&+\int _{t}^{T}\left( a_{r}e^{-(u-t)k_{r}}\int _{t}^{u}e^{(v-t)k_{r}}dW_{v}^{r}\right) du. \end{aligned}$$
Then:
Step 2: computation of \({ Var}_{t}\left[ \mathbf {M}_{T}\mathbf {-M}_{t}\right] \):
Step 3: computation of \({ Cov}_{t}\left[ \int _{t}^{T}r_{s}\,ds;\mathbf {M} _{T}\mathbf {-M}_{t}\right] \):
To conclude, recall that:
Therefore, we get:
Appendix B: Optimal weights
In what follows, we consider the CRRA case. At time t, the optimal CRRA portfolio value is given by:
Denote
To compute the optimal weights \(x_{C},x_{B},x_{P},\) and \(x_{_{S}}\), first we calculate \(V_{t}^{{ CRRA}}\). We have:
which implies
Using relation (25), we get:
Then, we determine \(\frac{dV_{t}^{{ CRRA}}}{V_{t}^{{ CRRA}}}\) by using Relation (34). Applying Ito’s formula, we get the martingale part of \(\frac{ dV_{t}^{{ CRRA}}}{V_{t}^{{ CRRA}}}\):
We obtain the following system:
Therefore, we deduce that, at any time t, the weights are given by:
Recall that \(\Sigma \) is the matrix:
We have:
thus:
Recall that \(z=\frac{1}{\gamma }-1\) and that the optimal portfolio for the logarithm case \(X^{{ Log}}\) is given by:
Therefore, we have:
where \(X^{{ Log}}\) is the optimal portfolio for the logarithm case, and \( X^{{ Conservative}}\) corresponds to the optimal portfolio for an infinite relative risk aversion \(\gamma \). This latter portfolio is given by:
Appendix C (Calibration)
In what follows, we detail how we can calibrate drifts, volatilities and instantaneous correlations of the Brownian motions to respectively expected returns per year, standard deviations per year and assets correlations.Footnote 15 Indeed, most of the empirical results about mean reverting asset returns are based on cumulated returns on given time periods [0, T] which are further annualized (see e.g. Campbell and Viceira 2002, 2005; Rehring 2012; Pagliari 2017). Using a continuous-time approach, we have to identify the parameters corresponding to instantaneous variations using those which correspond to annualized characteristics of cumulated returns.
In what follows, we consider two financial assets X and Y defined by:
where \(W_{t}=\left( W_{t}^{X},W_{t}^{Y}\right) _{1\le i\le d}\) is a 2-dimensional Brownian motion with correlation matrix \(\Sigma _{c,T}\) given by
where \(\rho _{T}^{W^{X},W^{Y}}=\left\langle W_{t}^{X},W_{t}^{Y}\right\rangle _{t}\) is a constant calibrated for a fixed management period [0, T]. Denote:
1.1 Computation of expected returns and variances
Denote \( \theta _{t}^{X}=\mu _{t}^{X}-r_{t}\). The random variable \(X_{T}\) can be expressed as \(X_{T}=\exp \left[ N_{T}^{X}\right] \) where \(N_{T}^{X}\) has a Gaussian distribution with
where
and
with
Therefore, we have:
and the variance is given by:
1.2 Calibration to the given return per year g(T) and to the given standard deviation per year \(h\left( T\right) \)
We must have:
from which, we deduce:
Therefore, we have:
Consequently, we get a first relation:
which yields to:
To get the standard deviation, we use the following second relation:
Finally, we get:
where we have:
1.3 Computation of covariances and correlations
In what follows, we search to calibrate the correlations of the three Brownian motions, namely the three parameters \({\rho }_{{T}}{^{r,\,P}}\), \({\rho }_{{T}}{^{r,\,S}}\) and \({\rho }_{{T}}{^{P,\,S}}\) to Rehring (2012) data (annualized correlations of cumulated asset returns). For this purpose, let us denote:
Taking account of the interest rate randomness, the covariance of asset prices X and Y is given by:
Taking account of the interest rate randomness, the correlation \(\rho _{T}^{X,Y}\) of asset prices X and Y is given by:
which yields to:
Thus, we get:
Note that, if \(r_{t}\) were deterministic, then we would have a special case with \(\mu _{s}^{X}=r_{s}+\theta _{s}^{X}\), \(\mu _{s}^{Y}=r_{s}+\theta _{s}^{Y}\) and \(B_{t}=C_{t}=D_{t}=0\). In such a case, the covariance of asset prices X and Y is given by:
Therefore, for a fixed management period [0, T] and for a given correlation function \(\rho _{T}^{X,Y}\) defined by:
we find:
Thus, we get:
The previous formula can be applied not only to the real estate–stock case but also, when the bond is involved. However, as detailed in Sect. 2, the bond modelling is such that the term structure is affine (see Relation 7).
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Amédée-Manesme, CO., Barthélémy, F., Bertrand, P. et al. Mixed-asset portfolio allocation under mean-reverting asset returns. Ann Oper Res 281, 65–98 (2019). https://doi.org/10.1007/s10479-018-2761-y
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DOI: https://doi.org/10.1007/s10479-018-2761-y